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Grammar question

ÀÛ¼ºÀÚ: ÀÌ*Èñ
2023-12-20 1155

ȸ¿ø´ÔÀÇ ¿µÀÛ¹®

Is 'to be' omitted between 'items' and 'shipped'?
I asked this question because in English we have to write "to" after "want"
Here is the sentence.
'The supervisor wants all of the items shipped by the end of the week, regardless of the cost.'

°­»ç´ÔÀÇ Ã·»è±³Á¤ ³»¿ë

Hi Sarah,

Thanks for your question. :)

First to answer that, let's point out that the verb 'to be' as an auxiliary verb that has no specific meaning and it is used to show the tense or voice of the main verb. There are two ways in which the verb 'to be' is used: 
'To be' is used in to make a present participle and form a progressive aspect.

In the case of your sentence:
'The supervisor wants all of the items shipped by the end of the week, regardless of the cost.'
'The supervisor wants all of the items 'to be' shipped by the end of the week, regardless of the cost.'

Both sentences are grammatically correct. The only difference between the two sentences is the use of the verb tense.

I hope this answers your question. :)
You can find more information about The Verb "To Be" here:
https://www.grammarly.com/blog/to-be/ 


Kind regards,

~T.Jhozel ^^
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